Wednesday, July 18, 2012

Mormon Questions Ask Here!!?


Ok so I watched the BBC Programme on Mormonism and it is COMPLTED CRUPTED.. I as where many others shocked when it came out with so much lies... So I have had a lot of questioned about it all... So this page is for me and other LDS to answer as many question as we can to put the facts right... SO ASK AWAY!!! :D

Best Answer - Chosen by Voters

Hi,
(1) If Heavenly Father took back the plates for their own protection, then why did he not do the same for all other Bible manuscripts like the biblical documents in the Dead Sea Scrolls? Why did he not preserve them instead of letting them rot in caves?

(2) Mormonism makes salvation impossible for this reason: It has a 'no blood before Adam's Fall' doctrine, including no children or death in the pre-Fall Animal Kingdom.[1] Additionally, the Fall is described as a blessing in the Book of Mormon at 2 Nephi 2:22-5. The problem is that it presents blood as a product of Adam's transgression, yet Jesus had blood,[2] but he was free of the affects of Adam's transgression. (Luke 1:35; Hebrews 4:15) Therefore, what we have here may be called a soteriological contradiction, for Jesus was holy and sinless—he did not have any products of Adam's transgression, but Mormonism gives him just that, blood from Adam's transgression.

Edit:
@ phrog: Hi there!
(1) Hiding them is both inconsistent and illogical for a loving God. A loving God would have the "gold" plates (or gold-plated tumbaga plates if you will) on public display for scientific examination. Thus, the fatal problem remains.

(2) It's from the official LDS website, as well as from your leaders such as Joseph Fielding Smith and Russell M. Nelson who published these views in the The Ensign of The Church of Jesus Christ of Latter-day Saints. So yes, serious Mormons have to believe the above about blood. Thus, the fatal contradiction remains.

@ Marco/phrog: Hi there!
If you are having trouble following my thinking, then how do you know I'm "making a pretty big assumption on this"? :-) Looks like this is something you need to take more seriously. In the meantime, the fatal problems remain.

[This Mormon claimed circuitously that Adam received blood, not due to transgressing, but due to becoming human.]

To this, I replied:

The LDS Adam became human because of his transgression. I'm afraid you're clearly arguing in circles, dancing around this fatal soteriological contradiction.

Source(s):

[1] "Fall of Adam." http://lds.org/scriptures/bd/fall-of-ada… This is taught elsewhere too.

[2] "Christ." http://lds.org/scriptures/bd/christ?lang… In order for Jesus to be the "last Adam" (1 Corinthians 15:45), he would have to be what Adam lost and voluntarily sacrifice that to be the ransom. Mormonism makes that impossible.

Link

Friday, June 8, 2012

Why do Jehovah's Witnesses deny the divinity of Jesus?

Jesus as the resurrected divine Son of Man

During His earthly life and ministry He did the very things we would expect the Creator God to do.

He did miracles. He raised people from the dead, turned water into wine.


In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. -John 1:1

Additional Details

It's a shame you guys had to re-edit your own bible.

Answer:

Hi there! He did those miracles because "God was with him." (Acts 10:38, see also 1Cor. 1:24)
Additionally, you may be surprised to learn that the Trinitarians changed John 1:1c to read "the Word was God," as the Greek text literally reads "the Word was a god," as corroborated by a translation of John from Greek 1,700 years ago, as it reads the same as discovered only after the NWT was published.[1]

To address your initial question, far from denying the divinity or deity of Christ, Jehovah's Witnesses affirm it with the loudest voice! This is clearly seen in the scripture you referenced: John 1:1, where you dispute the translation of "a god." Here we affirm in the clearest way that Jesus is divine.

Perhaps this question arises over a common misunderstanding about monotheism. Monotheism includes the existence of other inhabitants in heaven. But we don't give exclusive devotion to those, we give exclusive devotion to the almighty Creator, Jehovah God.

Ironically, it is the Trinitarians who deny the divinity of Christ. For instance, it is believed by them that Jesus is fully man and fully divine in heaven. Yet this is an abstraction that violates what Jesus and Paul taught about heaven. (Matthew 16:17; John 8:21, 23; 1 Corinthians 15:50; see also Psalm 115:16) So since the Trinitarian divinity of Christ is a clear violation of both the Scriptures and universal laws that God established, it cannot exist. Thus, Trinitarianism has defined the divinity of Christ out of existence.

Consider also how Trinitarianism teaches that Jesus was an incarnation on earth and how this violates the scriptures and nullifies Jesus' sacrificial death:

  • An incarnation could never offer himself as a corresponding ransom for the sins of humanity like Jesus did. (1 Timothy 2:5, 6)
  • An incarnation could never fully "sympathize with our weaknesses" like Jesus did. (Hebrews 4:15)
  • An incarnation is not "lower than angels" like Jesus was, but is still a spirit. (Hebrews 2:7, 9)
  • An incarnation could instantly heal injuries no matter how serious, as Jesus could not without his God's power. (Acts 10:38)[2]

Thus we can be most thankful that Jesus was not an incarnation but was born from a woman as Paul told us at Galatians 4:4. Any religious system that denies this basic teaching is condemned per Galatians 1:8.

Thank you for asking this question and I hope you give some prayerful attention to the reasoning here.

Source(s):

[1] Coptic John 1:1 and the New World Translation http://jimspace3000.blogspot.com/2010/09/coptic-john-11-and-new-world.html

[2] Additional reading: Jesus: a Spirit Born on Earth http://jimspace3000.blogspot.com/2011/02/jesus-spirit-born-on-earth-jesus-was.html
Do You Reject Trinitarianism? http://jimspace3000.blogspot.com/2010/11/normal-0-false-false-false.html

LINK

Wednesday, April 4, 2012

If there was no rain before the flood?


how did the plants receive moisture? How did inland lakes receive water? What happened in the process of making rain? If so, where did the water vapour go? What happens to the water vapour in the clouds? Did god somehow absorb it out? Shouldn't there be NO plants? There are studies showing that the Sahara was once a large rainforest, now its a wasteland. Why? Lack of rain. Was the entire world a desert then?

My Answer:

A consideration of Genesis 2:5, 6 addresses your question.

“Now there was as yet no bush of the field found in the earth [erets] and no vegetation of the field was as yet sprouting, because Jehovah God had not made it rain upon the earth [erets] and there was no man to cultivate the ground [adamah]. 6 But a mist would go up [or, “springs would well up”—NET Bible] from the earth [erets] and it watered the entire surface of the ground [adamah].”

Verse 7 is necessary to read in order to place these verses into their chronological sequence. It informs us that “God proceeded to form the man [adam] out of dust from the ground [adamah].” This is more significant than many realize. Verses 5, 6 are thus placed before the creation of Adam, during the second creative day described at Genesis 1:10-13. It was this watered soil, adamah, that Adam was created from. Thus, it must have preceded Adam. Significantly, when God told Noah at Genesis 7:4 that he would ‘make it rain on the earth,’ Noah did not seek clarification as if he never experienced that before.

Thus, we may safely reason that:

(1) it had rained during the antediluvian period.
(2) Genesis 2:5, 6 refers to a very early time in earth's history, likely during the Precambrian.[1]

Genesis was not written with modern scientists in mind, but it does harmonize with modern science.

Source(s):

[1] A History Channel video I have states that during the late Hadean when the earth had cooled and the crust had formed, that trapped water escaped and watered the earth.