Why did the mob sent to arrest Jesus retreat and fall down when he said "I am he"?

John 18:6 tells us that when Jesus said “I am the man” (J.B. Phillips) that the mob of soldiers and officials “retreated and fell to the ground.” (J.B. Phillips; NET Bible) The expression “I am the man” is literally “I am” from Ἐγώ εἰμι. Jesus said that because he asked them ‘Who are you looking for?’ and they replied ‘Jesus the Nazarene,’ and thus Jesus replied, ‘I am him, I’m the one you’re looking for.’

A NET Bible footnote tells us that “L. Morris says that “it is possible that those in front recoiled from Jesus’ unexpected advance, so that they bumped those behind them, causing them to stumble and fall” (John [NICNT], 743-44).” But the rest of the footnote claims that Ἐγώ εἰμι is a Divine Name and then connects it to their preferred English translation of Exodus 3:14, of “I AM.”

But we can test that interpretation by replacing “I am” with another divine designation:

Test:
Jesus: “Who are you looking for?”
Police: “Jesus.”
Jesus: “YHWH!”
End of test.

Result: Nonsense.

So why did they fall to the ground since Jesus was not using a divine name but simply affirming that he was the man they were seeking?

Best Answer:

The mob, or at least some of them, fell back because Jesus’ confident and forthright response caught them off guard. It may have seemed as if he were prepared to fight with a mob of disciples himself. His courageous response despite the formidable mob before him surprised them, causing them to brace themselves for what could have been an ambush of Jesus’ own device against them. Besides, there were possibly two swords possessed by his present disciples that may have been visible to the mob, even one of the disciples did cut off an ear of one of the members of the mob! Quickly they realized that no such attack was intended. Jesus taught peace and love, not violence and hate. :)

Another answer:

I have to agree with the footnote concerning the unexpected response of Jesus.

This is not a well lighted park as we have to day. Torch light is not very powerful.

On the other hand the second half of the commentary about the "I Am" is wrong.

Though the greek does say: "I am" the correct translation is "I am he"

NASB: 5 They answered Him, “Jesus the Nazarene.” He *said to them, “I am He.”
NIV: 5 *said to them, “I am He.”
KJV: 5 Jesus saith unto them, I am he.
YLT: 5 Jesus saith to them, `I am [he];'
NCV: 5 “Jesus from Nazareth.”“I am he,”

Add to this "I am" at Exodus 3:14 is translated from the Latin Vulgate and not the original Hebrew.

scripture4all.org translates it as: "I shall prove to be whom I am becoming"

Jehovah in Ex. 3:14 is not telling Moses that He exists, but that he will prove whom he is.

.J Washington Watts, Professor of Old Testament, New Orleans Baptist Theological Seminary, 1930-1968. A Distinctive Translation of Exodus With An Interpretative Outline, 1977, pp.140,1.

"Such a translation [in English] as "I am what I am" appears to be ruled out completely by the fact that the [Hebrew] verbs here are imperfects. "I am" is the normal translation of the Hebrew perfect, not an imperfect... This thought is made explicit in the verse that follows, and the proper name Yahweh, the memorial name, is made synonymous with the description "I shall continue to be what I have always been." This makes the description a restatement of Yahweh's faithfulness an assurance that he will fulfill the covenants with Abraham, Isaac and Jacob".

LINK


Related blog entry:

• Trinitarians, do you see the flawed reasoning of "I AM" in John 8:58?
  http://jimspace3000-ya.blogspot.com/2015/02/trinitarians-do-you-see-flawed.html