The LDS.org Bible Dictionary sums up Mormon teaching this way:
"Before the fall, Adam and Eve had physical bodies but no blood. There was no sin, no death, and no children among any of the earthly creations. With the eating of the “forbidden fruit,” Adam and Eve became mortal, sin entered, blood formed in their bodies, and death became a part of life."
So, according to Mormonism, when Adam fell or transgressed, blood appeared in his body. But, Jesus had blood, as Mormonism believes too! Mormonism teaches that Jesus “made a perfect atonement for the sins of all mankind by shedding of his blood and giving his life on the cross.”
Therefore, both the Bible and Mormon Jesus had blood, which according to Mormonism is the product of Adam's transgression.
What we have here may be called a soteriological contradiction, for Jesus was holy and sinless--he did not have any products of Adam's transgression. (Luke 1:35; Hebrews 4:15)
Edit: I see Mormons are thumbing down this post and others, hoping they will go away. (sigh) Instead of thumbing this post down, why not think about it? Contact me to discuss this if you want.
Link | (Related Question)